GS TEST SERIES – 12
1. If any political party gets recognized as a ‘national party’, which of the following benefits will it get?
1. Only one proposer is required to file a nomination.
2. Two sets of electoral rolls free of cost by the Election Commission of India.
3. Receive land or building from the government to establish their party office.
4. The election symbol of that party cannot be used by any other political party in polls across India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Consider the following statements regarding the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
1. He assists the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
2. His salary is equal to that of a judge of the Supreme Court
3. He can be removed by the president only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Which of the following languages were added through an amendment to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
1. Santhali
2. Sindhi
3. Maithili
4. Konkani
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
4. With reference to the process of social audit in India, consider the following statements:
1. The details of both the financial and non-financial resources used for the development process by a public agency are disclosed under the purview of social audit.
2. Social audits were given statutory status for the first time under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. As per the provisions of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, consider the following statements:
1. The Central Consumer Protection Authority under the act can suo-moto inquire and investigate violations of consumer rights.
2. A person who avails services for any commercial purpose is not considered a consumer.
3. Complaints with the national commission are filed free of cost.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
6. With reference to the ‘One Nation One Ration Card’ programme, consider the following statements:
1. The families coming under the category of below poverty line (BPL) only are eligible under the programme.
2. Assam is the first state to implement the programme.
3. The programme is an endeavour of the Ministry of Labour and Employment to empower the migrant labour population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
7. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘tribunals’ in India:
1. The provisions with respect to the tribunals existed as a part of the original Constitution.
2. The Parliament is empowered to establish tribunals for the adjudication of disputes related to the public services of local bodies.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
8. Consider the following statements with respect to National Achievement Survey:
1. It is a comprehensive evaluation survey of students learning competencies at higher secondary and graduation levels.
2. It is conducted annually by NITI Aayog.
3. Like the Annual Status of Education Report, it is a household survey.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None
9. Consider the following statements with respect to National Legal Services Authority (NALSA):
1. It disburses funds to State Legal Services Authorities to implement legal aid programs.
2. It provides women to free legal aid irrespective of their income or financial status.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. Consider the following statements regarding the Enforcement Directorate (ED):
1. It is a statutory body established under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA).
2. An Enforcement Directorate investigating officer can arrest an accused without prior intimation.
3. It is the only central investigative agency that does not require permission from the government to summon or prosecute politicians or government officials for inquiry into economic offences and financial crimes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
11. Which one of the following will be the result in a constituency where the highest number of votes polled are NOTA (None Of The Above)?
(a) Fresh polls will be held without fielding of candidates rejected by voters.
(b) The constituency will be merged with any of the adjacent constituencies.
(c) Governor will nominate a candidate after consulting the Chief Electoral Officer.
(d) Candidate securing the highest number of votes will be declared elected.
12. Which one of the following statements best describes the build-operate-transfer (BOT) model of public-private participation (PPP)?
(a) The private sector designs, builds, owns and constructs the facility and operates it commercially for the concession period.
(b) The procurement of raw materials and construction costs are met by the government while the private sector’s participation is limited to the provisions of engineering expertise.
(c) The government gives part of an undertaking to the private sector for operations and maintenance of assets.
(d) Government contracts with a private party to design and construct a project for a fee.
13. With reference to the National e-Governance Plan (NeGP), consider the following statements:
1. The National e-Governance Plan (NeGP) was launched under the Digital India Mission in 2015 by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
2. State data centers and common service centers form the core infrastructure components of the National e Governance Plan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
14. Consider the following statements regarding SOFIA Observatory:
1. SOFIA is joint collaboration between NASA and European Space Agency.
2. SOFIA’s telescope operates in the infrared wavelength.
3. SOFIA can land after each flight, so its instruments can be exchanged, serviced or upgraded.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and
15. Consider the following statements regarding the Cabinet Secretariat:
1. It functions directly under the President of India.
2. It is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961.
3. It ensures that the President, the Vice President, and Ministers are kept informed of the major activities of all ministries/departments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
16. Sevottam is a ‘service delivery excellence model’ which provides an assessment improvement framework to bring about excellence in public service delivery. Which of the following is/are components of the sevottam model?
1. Service Delivery Capability
2. The citizens’ charter
3. Mandatory use of ICT
4. Public grievance redressal
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
17. Nagpur Resolution, 2019 sometimes seen in the news, is related to:
(a) citizen centric governance.
(b) management of e-waste.
(c) curbing the menace of tuberculosis.
(d) regional connectivity through airways.
18. Consider the following statements with respect to Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT):
1. Members of CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
2. Appeals against the orders of the CAT can be made only in the Supreme Court.
3. CAT is bound by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
19. With reference to the Postal Ballot facility in India, consider the following statements:
1. Mediapersons on duty are authorized to cast their vote using postal ballot facility.
2. Any voter opting for a postal ballot facility cannot cast a vote at the polling station.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
20. Consider the following statements with regards to National Investigation Agency:
1. It can not investigate offenses committed outside India.
2. It has power to take suo-moto cognizance of terror activities.
3. It can investigate offenses related to human trafficking.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
21. With reference to the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Lokpal can suo-moto proceed against any public servant.
(b) It provides adequate protection for honest and upright public servants.
(c) It provides legal assistance to public servants against whom complaint is filed.
(d) Government aided institutions are not under the jurisdiction of Lokpal.
22. Which of the following has been explicitly cited as a ground for disqualification of electoral candidates under the Representation of People Act (RPA) 1951?
1. Conviction for robbery
2. Conviction for insulting the National Flag under the National Honour Act of 1971
3. Conviction for promoting or preaching the traditional practice of ‘untouchability’ which is abolished completely under Article 17 of the Indian Constitution
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
23. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC)?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(b) Its chairman and members are appointed by the President.
(c) A JSPSC presents its annual performance report to the President.
(d) The number of members of a JSPSC and their conditions of service are determined by the Parliament.
24. With reference to the Right to Information Act (RTI), 2005, consider the following statements:
1. Only the citizens of India have the right to seek information under the provisions of the Right to Information Act 2005.
2. If the public information officer (PIO) fails to provide the information, no appeal can be made against him/her under the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. Consider the following statements regarding the Competition Commission of India (CCI):
1. It is a statutory body responsible for enforcing the Companies Act, 2013.
2. Only a person who is qualified to be a judge of a High Court can be appointed as its Chairperson.
3. It was established to replace the Competition Appellate Tribunal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None
26. Consider the following statements about the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis (NCSK):
1. It is a statutory body.
2. It was established under the Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and Their Rehabilitation Act, 2013.
3. It is the nodal agency for implementation of the Central Sector Self Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
27. With reference to Good Governance Index, consider the following statements:
1. It is launched by NITI Aayog.
2. It is prepared on a bi-annual basis.
3. It evaluates the performance of 20 sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
28. Consider the following statements with respect to sovereign immunity in India:
1. The ‘doctrine of sovereign immunity’ in India is absolute.
2. India is yet to sign the United Nations Convention on Jurisdictional Immunities of States and their Property.
3. Foreign companies do not have immunity in India from judicial proceedings in cases involving their commercial activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
29. Which of the following is/are the criteria for allocating a ‘Maharatna’ status to a public sector enterprise?
1. Should have a ‘Miniratna’ status
2. Should have an average annual net profit before tax of more than Rs 15,000 crore during the last three years
3. Should be listed on the Indian stock exchange with minimum prescribed public shareholding under SEBI regulations
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
30. Consider the following statements regarding Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
1. It is a permanent intergovernmental international organization founded in 2001 in Shanghai.
2. Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) is a permanent organ of SCO.
3. Turkmenistan is a member of SCO.
4. SCO has observer status at United Nations General Assembly.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. Consider the following statements regarding Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) :
1. India is a member of IPEF.
2. IPEF countries together account for more than 70 percent of the world’s GDP.
3. A graded market access and lowering of tariffs are its stated goals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
32. Which of the following committees/ commissions are related to the police reforms?
1. The Ribeiro Committee
2. Malimath Committee
3. Punchhi Commission
4. Padmanabhaiah Committee
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
33. Consider the following statements about Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in India:
1. Ballot papers and EVMs must carry the picture of the candidate with his or her name, educational qualifications, and party symbol.
2. Shortage of regular electricity supply in rural areas is a major obstacle to the smooth functioning of EVMs.
3. EVMs were used for the first time in the general elections in 2004.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None
34. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is an intergovernmental organization dealing with trade, investment, and development issues. In this context, which of the following reports are published by UNCTAD?
1. Trade and Development Report
2. World Investment Report
3. Global Competitiveness Report
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
35. Consider the following statements with reference to Saavira Kambada Basadi:
1. It is located in the state of Rajasthan.
2. It is a Jain temple which is made up of thousand Pillars.
3. Its chief deity is Jain Tirthankara, Lord Mahavira.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None
36. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Central Information Commission (CIC)?
(a) It is a statutory body constituted under the Information Technology Act, 2000.
(b) A person connected with any political party can be appointed as a Information Commissioner but can not be appointed as Chief Information Commissioner.
(c) It falls under Department of Personal and Training.
(d) The salary of the Chief Information Commissioner is equivalent to the salary paid to the Chief Election Commissioner.
37. With reference to online dispute resolution (ODR) in India, consider the following statements:
1. SAMADHAN portal was launched to address disputes due to delayed payments in MSMEs.
2. Chhattisgarh became the first state to conduct Virtual Lok Adalat for conciliation services.
3. RBI recognizes the ODR system for resolving customer disputes and grievances pertaining to digital payments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
38. Consider the following pairs:
Portal/Service Purpose
1. e-Nivaran : To ensure faster and easier resolution to tax related complaints
2. PRAGATI : An integrated platform through which the Prime Minister oversees the implementation of various government schemes and projects
3. CPGRAMS : Single portal connecting all ministries for 24×7 grievance redressal
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
39. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
1. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the Parliament of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission of India.
2. Orders of the Delimitation Commission in India have the force of law and cannot be called in question before any court of law.
3. Delimitation Commission is constituted after every decadal census.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
40. With reference to the Governance Knowledge Centre (GKC), consider the following statements:
1. It is a repository of practical solutions to day-to-day challenges to assist civil servants.
2. It is an initiative of NITI Aayog in collaboration with IIT Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
41. Consider the following statements regarding the State Public Service Commission (SPSC) of a state:
1. Its chairman and members are appointed by the Governor of the concerned state.
2. The recommendations made by it are only advisory in nature and not binding on the state government.
3. The chairman of a SPSC is not eligible for any other appointment under the Government of India or the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
42. Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Election Commissioner of India:
1. He can be removed from office only through a resolution passed by the Parliament.
2. He appoints the Chief Electoral Officer of a State from amongst senior civil servants proposed by the concerned State government.
3. The Constitution of India has debarred him from any further appointment by the government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
43. With reference to the public financial management system (PFMS), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a web-based online software application developed and implemented by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).
2. It aims to establish an efficient fund flow system as well as a payment cum accounting network.
3. It is integrated with the core banking system in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
44. With reference to corporate donations to political parties in India, consider the following statements:
1. Only profit-making domestic companies can contribute to political parties in form of corporate donations.
2. Corporations are free to donate any amount of money and are not liable to declare the recipient of their donations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
45. 97th Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2011 provided constitutional status to cooperative societies. In this context, which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution were amended by 97th Constitutional Amendment Act?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
4. Ninth Schedule
Select the correct answer using code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
46. Consider the following statements:
1. Governor is empowered to authorise the use of any language for the official purposes of a state.
2. A state can adopt not more than three languages as official languages.
3. In choosing the official language, a state is not bound to choose the languages enumerated in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
47. Consider the following statements regarding the State Information Commission:
1. It can suo-moto order inquiry into any matter.
2. The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the State Chief Information Commissioner and State Information Commissioner are determined by the Central Government.
3. The State Chief Information Commissioner can be removed from the office only by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
48. Consider the following statements regarding the State Human Rights Commission (SHRC):
1. Its chairperson and members are appointed by the governor but removed only by the President.
2. A person appointed as a chairperson or member is eligible for reappointment but ineligible for any other employment under the Central and State Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
49. Consider the following statements regarding Official Languages Act, 1963:
1. It enabled the use of English language indefinitely.
2. It provided for setting up of a committee of Parliament to review progress on use of English for the official purpose of the Union.
3. It made the use of English compulsory in contracts and agreements issued by the central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
50. The Snake Island was recently seen in the news. It is located in
(a) Black Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Red Sea
(d) North Sea
51. Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission:
1. It has all the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
2. Recommendations made by it are not binding on the government.
3. Only a retired or sitting judge of the Supreme Court can be appointed as its chairman.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
52. Consider the following statements with reference to the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS):
1. It was established in 1975 by the treaty of Lagos.
2. All the countries in the Horn of Africa are its members.
3. As a trading union, it is meant to create a single, large trading bloc through economic cooperation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
53. Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding the Attorney General of India (AG)?
1. He is the highest law officer in the country.
2. He ranks higher than all the Cabinet Ministers of the Union except the Prime Minister in the Table of Precedence.
3. His term of office is not fixed by the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
54. Consider the following statements:
1. Representation of the People Act, 1950 allows a political party to submit a list of star campaigners to the election authorities.
2. Expenditure incurred on electioneering by the star campaigner is added to a candidate’s poll expenditure.
3. When a prime minister or a former prime minister is a star campaigner, the expenditure incurred on security including bullet-proof vehicles will be borne by the government.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
55. Consider the following statements regarding Government e-Marketplace (GeM) in India:
1. It is a completely paperless, cashless and system-driven e-marketplace.
2. Both public and private sellers and buyers are authorized to sell and make procurement respectively through the GeM portal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
56. With reference to the opinion polls in India, consider the following statements:
1. An opinion poll is conducted immediately after people have voted to assess the support for political parties and their candidates.
2. No restrictions are in place on opinion polls under the provisions of Representation of the People’s Act, 1951.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. Fostering Effective Energy Transition Report, recently seen in news, was released by which one of the following institutions?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) United Nations Environment Programme
(c) International Energy Agency
(d) International Union for Conservation of Nature
58. Consider the following statements with reference to constitutional provisions related to official language:
1. The Constitution specifies the official language of both Union and states.
2. Supreme Court is empowered to make provision for the use of Hindi in high courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
59. With reference to the Model Code of Conduct, consider the following statements:
1. The provisions of the Model Code of Conduct also apply to the content being posted on the internet, including social media websites, by candidates and political parties.
2. It is not legally enforceable.
3. It was introduced for the first time in the state of Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
60. Which one of the following committees suggested that state funding of elections in India would ensure a level playing field for poorer political parties and argued that such a move would be in public interest?
(a) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(b) Jaya Prakash Narayan Committee (1974)
(c) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
(d) Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998)
61. Which of the following dignitaries can display the State Emblem of India on their cars?
1. Governor of a State
2. Heads of India’s Diplomatic Missions in the countries of their accreditation
3. Prime Minister
4. Chief Justice of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
62. With reference to the Forest Rights Act, 2006, consider the following statements:
1. The Gram Sabha is the initiating authority for determining the nature and extent of the individual as well as community forest rights.
2. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the nodal implementing agency of the act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
63. Consider the following statements regarding the Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO):
1. It is a statutory body established under the Money Laundering Act, 2002.
2. It is a multi-disciplinary organization under the Ministry of Finance.
3. It has powers to arrest people for the violation of the Company law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
64. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the NITI Aayog?
(a) Regional Councils are formed for a specified tenure to address specific issues and contingencies impacting more than one state or a region.
(b) Governing Council comprises the Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Cabinet Ministers.
(c) Vice-Chairpersons enjoy the rank of a Cabinet Minister whereas members enjoy the rank of a Minister of State.
(d) Chief Executive Officer is appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India.
65. Consider the following statements with respect to multi state cooperative societies:
1. The item ‘cooperative societies’ is a subject under Concurrent list of the 7th Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
2. Administrative and financial control of these societies is with the state government officials.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. Which of the following are recommended by the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC)?
1. Fundamental right to compensation if a person is illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty.
2. An independent National Education Commission should be set-up every five years.
3. A new Directive Principle of State Policy on control of population should be added.
4. Article 356 should be deleted.
5. Fundamental Duty to vote at elections and to pay taxes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
67. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Central Bureau of Investigation?
1. It is an attached office under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
2. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
3. Its director is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee headed by the Prime Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only
68. Which of the following is/are salient features of the ‘Mission Karmayogi’?
1. Aligning work allocation of civil servants by matching their competencies to the requirements of the posts.
2. To emphasize on ‘on-site’ learning to complement the ‘off-site’ learning.
3. Empowering revision of pay structures of civil servants based on their performance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
69. Which of the following countries are members of ASEAN group?
1. Brunei
2. Laos
3. Singapore
4. Papua New Guinea
5. Philippines
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
70. ‘It shall be the endeavor of every state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups’. This provision was provided in the Indian Constitution under:
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Part XVII
71. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC):
1. It was established under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.
2. It is empowered to take action against complainants making motivated or vexatious complaints.
3. It exercises superintendence over the functioning of the Central Bureau of Investigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
72. Consider the following statements regarding the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council:
1. It is a Constitutional body.
2. The Prime Minister of India is its chairman.
3. The Chief Ministers of all the States are ex-officio members of GST Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3 only
73. Consider the following statements regarding International Liquid-Mirror Telescope:
1. It has been set up at Devasthal Observatory in Uttarakhand.
2. It is built by India in collaboration with NASA.
3. It uses mercury as a reflective liquid.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
74. In the context of the citizen’s charter in India, consider the following statements:
1. It enlists the commitments made by a government agency to the citizens in respect of the services being provided to them.
2. It is legally enforceable and justifiable.
3. It empowers the citizens to demand committed standards of service.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
75. Which of the following criteria needs to be met by a political party to be recognised as a national party under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968?
(a) If it gets six percent valid votes in the legislative assembly elections in four or more states and four seats in the Lok Sabha polls.
(b) If it secures eight percent of valid votes in the Lok Sabha polls irrespective of number of seats it wins.
(c) If it secures two per cent of the total number of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election and the candidates are elected from at least six states.
(d) If it is recognised as state party in two or more states.
76. With reference to mercy petition in India, consider the following statements:
1. In India, only Supreme Court and High Courts can award death sentences.
2. When a mercy petitioner makes out a sufficient case, oral hearing before President cannot be denied.
3. There is no prescribed time limit within which the President is bound to take a decision regarding mercy petitions.
4. If a state law prescribes death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies with the governor.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
77. Consider the following statements regarding Indian Gas Exchange:
1. It allows buyers and sellers of natural gas to trade both in spot market and in forward market for imported natural gas.
2. It operates under the regulatory framework of Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Nether 1 nor 2
78. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution ensure the independent and impartial functioning of the Election Commission?
1. The Constitution has not prescribed the qualifications for the members of the Election Commission.
2. The service conditions of the Chief Election Commissioner cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
3. The Constitution has not debarred the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
79. Consider the following statements regarding Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:
1. The Constitution specifies the qualifications and service conditions of the Officer.
2. The Officer falls under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
3. The objective of the Officer is to investigate all matters related to safeguards provided to the linguistic minorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
80. Consider the following statements:
1. Election Commission of India has the power to deregister inactive political parties under the Representation of the People Act, (RPA) 1951.
2. A party is recognized as a state party if it secures at least 8% of the total valid votes polled in the state in a Lok Sabha election or assembly election.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
81. Consider the following statements regarding the tenth schedule of the Indian Constitution and anti-defection:
1. Any decision of the presiding officer regarding disqualification arising out of defection is not final and subject to judicial review.
2. According to the rules related to defection, the presiding officer can take action against defection on his own (suo moto).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
82. Consider the following statements with respect to the Biological Diversity Act, 2002:
1. The Act has made it mandatory for every local self-governing institution to constitute Biodiversity Management Committee (BMC).
2. People’s Biodiversity Register is prepared by the National Biodiversity Authority in consultation with civil society.
3. People’s Biodiversity Register contains comprehensive information on the availability and knowledge of local biological resources.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
83. In the context of World Trade Organization (WTO), the term ‘Electronic Transmission Moratorium’ is often seen in news. It seeks to
(a) tax digital companies at a minimum of 15 percent
(b) not impose any customs duty on electronic transmission
(c) prevent transborder flow of data
(d) impose penalties on Multinational Companies that violate data privacy rules
84. Consider the following statements with respect to legal proceedings against government officials:
1. No criminal proceedings can be started against the governor of a state in respect of his/her personal acts during the term of office.
2. The judicial officers enjoy immunity from any liability in respect of their official acts.
3. The State must be liable for all tortuous acts of its employees, whether done in exercise of sovereign or non-sovereign powers.
4. The Constitution does not grant any immunity to the ministers for their official acts.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
85. Consider the following statements regarding the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC):
1. It is a not-for-profit public limited company set up as part of a national skill development mission.
2. It was set up by the Ministry of Finance. 3. The Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship holds 49% of the share capital of NSDC, while the private sector has 51% of the share capital.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
86. Article 323-B of the Indian Constitution provides for establishment of tribunals for which of the following matters?
1. Public service matters in connection with the affairs of a state
2. Industrial disputes
3. Foreign exchange
4. Elections to the Lok Sabha
Select the correct answer using code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
87. Consider the following statements regarding the State emblem of India:
1. A State Government before adopting the emblem as the official Emblem of the State must obtain the prior approval of the Central Government.
2. The use of the emblem in official seal is restricted to the only Constitutional bodies.
3. Municipal councils and Panchayati Raj Institutions can not use the emblem in any manner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
88. The term ‘Artemis Accords’, recently in the news, is related to
(a) Ozone pollution
(b) Space exploration
(c) Cybersecurity
(d) Climate Change
89. Consider the following pairs:
Lake/Wetland Country
1. Pantanal : Brazil
2. Lake Victoria : Mozambique
3. Lake Balkhash : Kazakhstan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
90. Consider the following statements regarding the Advocate General of the State:
1. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a high court.
2. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of the state legislature.
3. The Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
91. Which of the following are the possible benefits of e-Governance in India?
1. Reduction in corruption in the administration
2. More hierarchical organizational structure
3. Greater citizen participation in the governance process
4. Improved relations between the public authorities and civil society
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
92. In the context of petrol and diesel pricing in India, which of the following are the primary components of their retail price?
1. Price Charged to Dealers
2. Excise Duty levied by the central government.
3. Dealer Commission
4. Sales Tax by states/union territories
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
93. With reference to political and electoral reforms in India, arrange the following events in chronological order:
1. Introduction of NOTA option
2. Photos of candidates on EVMs
3. Introduction of electors’ photo identity card
4. Lowering the voting age from 21 years to 18 years
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 4-3-1-2
(c) 3-4-2-1
(d) 3-4-1-2
94. To counter China’s influence in the Pacific ocean a group of like-minded countries have formed a new initiative called ‘Partners in the Blue Pacific’. In this context, which of the following countries are members of this initiative?
1. United States of America
2. Australia
3. Japan
4. United Kingdom
5. New Zealand
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
95. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
(a) Only a retired Chief Justice of India can be appointed as its chairman.
(b) Its chairman and members hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
(c) It can not inquire sou motu into any violation of human rights by a public servant.
(d) It has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character.
96. Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the Retail Direct Scheme?
(a) Retail investors can buy government securities directly in the primary market.
(b) Under this scheme, an individual can access the secondary market.
(c) Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL) is authorized to act as an aggregator of the bids from investors for primary issuances.
(d) Retail investors can open and maintain the ‘Retail Direct Gilt Account’ with designated commercial banks.
97. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)?
(a) The Constitution of India has specified its strength and composition.
(b) The Parliament determines the conditions of service of the chairman and other members of the UPSC.
(c) The advise tendered by the Supreme Court regarding the removal of its chairman or a member is binding on the president.
(d) The educational qualifications for UPSC members are mentioned in the Constitution of India.
98. Consider the following statements regarding Global Compact for Migration (GCM):
1. GCM is the first-ever United Nations global agreement on a common approach to international migration in all its dimensions.
2. It is a non-binding document that respects states’ sovereign right to determine who enters and stays in their territory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
99. With reference to elections in India, consider the following statements with reference to expenditures incurred:
1. There is no election expenditure limit for political parties.
2. Any incorrect accounting of expenditure can lead to the disqualification of a candidate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
100. With reference to the Engineering, Procurement, and Construction (EPC) Model of public-private partnership (PPP), consider the following statements:
1. The government bears the total capital cost during the construction period.
2. The toll/revenue collection is the responsibility of the private entity
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2