GS TEST SERIES – 11
1. Who among the following dignitaries takes the oath or affirmation “to devote himself/herself to the service and well-being of the people of India”?
1. President
2. Vice President
3. Prime Minister
4. Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. As per the Constitution of India, the Governor of which of the following States have special responsibilities with respect to law and order?
1. Nagaland
2. Assam
3. Manipur
4. Arunachal Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. With reference to the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992, consider the following statements:
1. The act bars the interference by courts in the electoral matters of panchayats.
2. The provisions of the Act do not apply to the Union Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. In the context of Indian polity, which one of the following is not a federal characteristic/ feature?
(a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
(b) The Constitution provides for a bicameral legislature.
(c) Powers have been divided between the Centre and the states.
(d) The fundamental rights are enforceable by courts of law.
5. With respect to the growing trend of appointment of Deputy Chief Minister (CM) in the state, consider the following statements:
1. It is not a constitutional post.
2. He does not enjoy any extra financial powers in comparison to the CM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
6. With reference to the Council of Ministers, consider the following statements:
1. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 provided that the President is constitutionally obliged to act according to the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.
2. The Constitution of India requires every order of the President for a public act to be countersigned by a minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Which of the following is/are necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
1. President can make laws relating to that State
2. Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved
3. President dismisses the state council of ministers
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
8. The provision that “the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha” is mentioned in which of the following?
(a) Rule of Lok Sabha
(b) Constitution of India
(c) Parliamentary conventions
(d) Supreme Court Judgement
9. With reference to the proclamation of National Emergency under Article 352, consider the following statements:
1. The National Emergency has been declared only three times in India.
2. National Emergency can be declared only on the grounds of ‘war’ or ‘external aggression’.
3. The President can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
10. Under the provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, which of the following provisions were extended to the panchayats in scheduled areas?
1. The Gram Sabha shall be consulted before making the acquisition of land for development projects.
2. The recommendations of the Gram Sabha shall be mandatory for the grant of mining leases for minor minerals.
3. Planning and management of minor water bodies in the scheduled areas shall be entrusted to Panchayats.
4. Gram Sabha is endowed with the ownership of minor forest produce.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. The Central Council of Local Government was constituted by
(a) An order of the President of India as per the provision under Article 263 of the Indian Constitution.
(b) An act of the parliament as per the provision under the concurrent list of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution.
(c) An executive order following the recommendations of the Law Commission.
(d) None
12. In which of the following cases the Rajya Sabha has equal power and status as that of the Lok Sabha?
1. Election and impeachment of the President
2. Approval of ordinances issued by the President
3. Resolution for the discontinuance of the national emergency
4. Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
13. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment and conditions of service of advocate-general of state:
1. An individual who has been an advocate of the high court for 10 years is eligible and can be appointed as the advocate general.
2. A person holding a judicial office in the territory of India for 5 years is eligible and can be appointed as advocate general.
3. The remuneration of the advocate general is determined by the state legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
14. With reference to the legislative procedure in the state legislature in India, consider the following statements:
1. The legislative council can detain or delay the ordinary bill for a maximum period of three months.
2. The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of both the Houses to resolve the disagreement between the two Houses.
3. An ordinary bill that originated in the council and is sent to the legislative assembly becomes dead if rejected by the latter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
15. It is granted when funds to meet the proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by reappropriation. Demand for the grant of a token sum of Rs 1 is submitted to the vote of the Lok Sabha and if assented, funds are made available. Reappropriation involves the transfer of funds from one head to another. It does not involve any additional expenditure.
Which of the following type of grants has been described in the passage given above?
(a) Vote of Credit
(b) Exceptional Grant
(c) Token Grant
(d) Supplementary Grant
16. Consider the following statements regarding the joint sitting of the two houses in Parliament:
1. A quorum to constitute a joint sitting is one-tenth of the total number of members of the two Houses.
2. The bill in dispute shall be passed by a majority of the total number of members of both the Houses present and voting in the joint sitting.
3. Provision regarding the joint sitting of the two Houses was invoked for the first time for Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1960.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
17. Which of the following is/are part of charged expenditure on the Consolidated Fund of India?
1. Emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditures relating to his office
2. Salaries, allowances, and pensions of the judges of the Supreme Court and high courts
3. Administrative expenses of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India and the Union Public Service Commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
18. Consider the following items:
1. Fire Services
2. Roads and Bridges
3. Urban Forestry
4. Management of railway stations
Which of the items given above has been provided under the twelfth schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
19. Which of the following countries are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)?
1. Greece
2. Austria
3. Turkey
4. France
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
20. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Proclamation of National Emergency?
(a) The proclamation must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two month from the date of its issue.
(b) Emergency can be extended for an indefinite period with the approval of Parliament every six months.
(c) Resolution approving the proclamation of emergency must be passed by a simple majority.
(d) Revocation of National Emergency requires Parliamentary approval.
21. With reference to the state executive, consider the following statements regarding the Council of Ministers:
1. The Council of ministers cannot tender advice to the Governor after their dismissal.
2. The nature of advice tendered by the Council of Ministers can not be enquired in a court of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
22. Consider the following statements with reference to public bills and private bills:
1. The introduction of a public bill in the House requires seven days’ notice whereas a private bill introduction in the House requires one month’s notice.
2. A public bill is drafted by the concerned department in consultation with the law department, unlike a private bill that is drafted by a concerned member.
Which of the statements given above is/ are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
23. Under the Constitution of India, the President has powers to remove which of the following dignitaries?
1. The Attorney General of India
2. Governor of a State
3. Speaker of Lok Sabha
4. Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
24. In the context of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements regarding the mutual delegation of functions between the Centre and states:
1. The Centre can delegate its legislative powers to a state only with the previous consent of the state government.
2. President can entrust the executive functions of the Centre to a state without the consent of that state.
3. The governor of a state may entrust to the Central Government any of the executive functions of the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
25. Consider the following statements regarding the panel of chairpersons of Lok Sabha:
1. They are elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members.
2. Any of them can preside over the House when the office of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is vacant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
26. With reference to the pardoning powers of the President, consider the following statements:
1. The President of India is the only authority empowered to remit a death sentence.
2. The petitioner seeking pardon has no right to an oral hearing by the President.
3. The power of the President to grant a pardon is subjected to judicial review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
27. With reference to Special Provisions for the administration of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Minister of NCT of Delhi holds office during the pleasure of the President.
2. The term “government” in the context of the NCT of Delhi refers to the Lieutenant Governor (LG) of the NCT.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
28. Consider the following statements regarding the qualifications for membership of the Parliament:
1. A candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha from a particular state should be an elector in that particular state.
2. A member of scheduled tribes can contest a seat in the Lok Sabha not reserved for them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. Which one of the following commissions/ committees recommended that the convention of Governors acting as Chancellors of Universities and holding other statutory positions should be done away with and his role should be confined to the Constitutional provisions only?
(a) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(b) Punchhi Commission (2007)
(c) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
30. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution reveal the asymmetric federal character of the Indian State?
1. Imposition of President’s Rule
2. Allocation of seats in the Council of States
3. Creation of autonomous districts
4. Appointment of State Governor
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
31. Consider the following statements with reference to the Estimates Committee of the Parliament:
1. It cannot suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency in administration as there is no representation of ministers in the committee.
2. It lacks the expert assistance of the CAG which is available to the Public Accounts Committee.
3. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members and he is invariably from the ruling party.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
32. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the chairman of the legislative council of a state?
1. His power and functions are similar to those of the Speaker in the legislative assembly.
2. He is elected by the council itself from amongst its members.
3. He nominates a panel of Vice-Chairmen and a Deputy Chairman of the council from amongst the members.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
33. In the context of security system provided by UIDAI for Aadhaar, consider the following statements:
1. Virtual ID (VID) is a temporary 12 digit random number mapped with Aadhaar number.
2. VID can be used in lieu of Aadhaar number whenever e-KYC services are performed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
34. With reference to the state legislature, consider the following statements:
1. Unless a member takes the oath, he cannot vote but can participate in the proceedings of the House.
2. Salaries and allowances for the members of state legislatures are determined by the Parliament by law.
3. The Constitution provided for the reservation of seats for scheduled castes in the assembly of each state on the basis of population ratios.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
35. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the legislative council in a State?
(a) The size of the council depends on the size of the assembly of the concerned State.
(b) The vacant seats are filled up by fresh elections and nominations at the beginning of every two year.
(c) Only 5/6 of the total number of members of a legislative council are indirectly elected.
(d) The members of the legislative assembly of the concerned state can elect only one-third members for the legislative council.
36. With reference to the Vice President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age as a qualification for the office of Vice President.
2. The Vice-President can be removed only on the grounds of violation of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
37. In which of the following cases of double membership, a member of Parliament will lose both seats?
(a) If a sitting member of the state legislature gets elected as Member of Parliament and fails to resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
(b) If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament and fails to intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve.
(c) If a person is elected to two seats in a House and fails to exercise his option for one.
(d) If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House.
38. Consider the following statements with reference to the passage of the ordinary bill in Parliament:
1. The first reading of the bill involves the introduction of the bill only after its publication in the Gazette.
2. The second reading involves the stage of general discussion.
3. The third reading is confined to acceptance or rejection of the bill as a whole with amendments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
39. In the context of environmental science, the term ‘nurdles’ is often seen in the news. It refers to
(a) plastic raw materials
(b) invasive species
(c) algal blooms
(d) agricultural waste
40. Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to ‘Whale Shark’?
(a) It is the largest among fish species.
(b) It is currently listed as a ‘critically endangered’ species on IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
(c) It is found in all tropical ocean waters of the world.
(d) It is a filter feeder.
41. Consider the following statements with reference to List III (Concurrent List) in the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution:
1. At present this list has more than 100 subjects.
2. Both the Parliament and state legislature can make laws with respect to any of the subjects enumerated in the List.
3. In case of a conflict between laws made by the Centre and states, the central law prevails over the state law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
42. Which of the following Union Territories have popular political institutions headed by the Chief Minister?
1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. Ladakh
3. National Capital Territory of Delhi
4. Puducherry
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
43. Which one of the following is not a function of the Cabinet Secretariat?
(a) Monitoring implementation of decisions taken by the Cabinet and its Committees
(b) Management of major crisis situations in the country
(c) Creating new Standing Committees of the Cabinet
(d) Providing assistance in decision-making in Government by ensuring inter ministerial coordination
44. Consider the following states:
1. Nagaland
2. Tripura
3. Jharkhand
4. Mizoram
The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India provides special provisions for how many of the states given above?
(a) Only one State
(b) Only two States
(c) Only three States
(d) All Four States
45. Consider the following statements regarding the revenue of urban local bodies (ULBs):
1. The devolution of funds to ULBs from the state government is made on the basis of the recommendations of the state finance commission.
2. ULBs can raise loans from financial institutions only with the prior approval of the central government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the office of the Speaker and Deputy Speaker?
(a) Frederick Whyte was the first elected Speaker of the central legislative assembly.
(b) The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1935.
(c) Vithalbhai J. Patel was the first appointed Deputy Speaker of the central legislative assembly.
(d) Ananthasayanam Ayyangar was the first Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
47. With reference to the administration of ‘Scheduled areas’, consider the following statements:
1. The power to amend the Constitutional provisions for the administration of ‘Scheduled area’ in any state is vested with the Parliament.
2. The Legislature of a state having a Scheduled area can only increase but not decrease the size of the Scheduled area.
3. The Governor of a state with Scheduled areas has powers to modify the provisions of an act of Parliament in relation to such areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
48. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian Constitution provides that the Finance Bill must be enacted within 75 days of its introduction.
2. Unlike the Appropriation Bill, the amendments seeking to reject or reduce a tax can be moved in the case of the finance bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
49. Which of the following departmental standing committees’ jurisdiction comes under Lok Sabha?
1. Committee on Food, Consumer Affairs, and Public Distribution
2. Committee on Labour
3. Committee on Railways
4. Committee on Home Affairs
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 ,3 and 4
50. Who is the Chairman of the National Water Resources Council?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Minister of Jal Shakti
(d) Minister of Agriculture
51. Consider the following statements:
1. The payments from the Public Account of India can be made without parliamentary approval.
2. The contingency fund of India is held by the finance ministry on behalf of the president.
3. The public account of India is operated by executive action.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
52. Consider the following statements about the Speaker of Lok Sabha:
1. He is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India within the House.
2. He resigns by writing to the President of India.
3. He can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
53. Which of the following countries does not open into the Red Sea?
(a) Ethiopia
(b) Eritrea
(c) Sudan
(d) Djibouti
54. With reference to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), consider the following statements:
1. It is released by the National Statistical Office (NSO).
2. It estimates the unemployment rate in the ‘Current Weekly Status’ in the interval of three months for both the urban and rural areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
55. Under which of the following circumstances does the Constitution empower the Parliament to make laws on any matter enumerated in the State List?
1. When a no-confidence motion has been passed and the state executive has resigned
2. When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws on matters in the State List
3. When the legislature of a state passes a resolution requesting the Parliament to enact laws on a matter in the State List
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
56. Which of the following statements can be regarded as the discretionary powers of the Governor?
1. To determine the amount of royalty from mineral exploration to be paid to tribal district councils by the state government.
2. Recommendation for the President’s rule in the State.
3. While exercising his functions as the administrator of an adjoining union territory.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
57. Consider the following statements:
1. The subsidy on fertilizers covered under Nutrient Based Subsidy scheme is directly paid to farmers.
2. The maximum retail prices (MRP) of urea and P&K fertilisers are statutorily fixed by the Union Government.
3. The Fertiliser (Control) Order, 1985 is administered by the Department of Fertilisers.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
58. Consider the following statements regarding municipalities in India:
1. Like corporations, they are established by the acts of the concerned state legislatures.
2. The council is the legislative wing of the municipality and is headed by a president or chairman.
3. The chairman or the president is responsible for the day-to-day general administration of the municipality.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
59. Consider the following statements with reference to National Land Monetization Corporation (NLMC):
1. It is wholly owned by the Government of India.
2. It will undertake the monetization of surplus land of Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) and other Government agencies.
3. Department of Public Enterprises, Ministry of Finance will act as its administrative ministry.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
60. Sub-Forum on Health and Sub-Forum on Sports and Youth Development belongs to which of the following parliamentary forum?
(a) Parliamentary Forum on Education
(b) Parliamentary Forum on Youth
(c) Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health
(d) Parliamentary Forum on Millennium Development Goals
61. The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in:
(a) Lok Sabha only
(b) Rajya Sabha only
(c) Either house of the Parliament
(d) A joint sitting of both houses of the Parliament
62. Consider the following statements about the financial committees:
1. Public Accounts Committee is the largest committee of Parliament.
2. Rajya Sabha has no representation in these committees except the committee on Public Accounts.
3. The Estimates committee was set up first under the provisions of the Indian Councils Act, 1909.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) None
63. A bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains ‘only’ provisions dealing with:
1. The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.
2. The regulation of the borrowing of money by the Union government.
3. The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. The demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
64. The Mekong river passes through which of the following countries?
1. China
2. Vietnam
3. Cambodia
4. Laos
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
65. Recently seen in the news, General Network Access (GNA) refers to
(a) free access to Open Network for digital commerce.
(b) open and non-discriminatory access to the inter-state electricity transmission system.
(c) granting the power producers access to Renewable Energy Network.
(d) granting access to petrol and diesel sales at all petrol pumps, including in remote areas.
66. Which of the following are the compulsory provisions of Part IX of the Indian Constitution?
1. Five-year term of office to the panchayat at all levels.
2. Reservation of one-third of seats for women in panchayats at all three levels.
3. Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
67. In the context of river linking projects in India, consider the following statements regarding the Ken-Betwa link project :
1. It envisages water transfer from Betwa to Ken.
2. Betwa river is a tributary of the Yamuna river and Ken river is a tributary of the Narmada river.
3. Both Betwa and Ken originate from the Vindhyan ranges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
68. An ordinance issued by the President of India:
1. cannot contravene Fundamental Rights any more than an act of Parliament
2. can repeal an act of the Parliament on a subject in the Concurrent list of the seventh schedule of the constitution
3. can have a maximum life of six months in case of non-approval by the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
69. With reference to United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), consider the following statements:
1. It was founded as a result of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment in 1972.
2. It is headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
3. It organises the Environment Assembly which meets biennially to set priorities for global environmental policies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
70. The Constitution provides for grants-in-aid to the states from the central resources. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Statutory grants are given by the Parliament to only those states which are in need of financial assistance and not to every state.
2. The statutory grants are given to the states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. In the context of Indian Federalism, consider the following statements:
1. The Indian federal system is based on the British model and not on the American model.
2. The Indian federation is the result of an agreement among the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
72. The constitution of India mandates which of the following states to have a separate Minister in charge of Tribal Affairs?
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Jharkhand
3. Bihar
4. Odisha
5. Maharashtra
6. Madhya Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3 and 6 only
(d) 1, 4 and 5 only
73. With reference to Financial Action Task Force (FATF), consider the following statements:
1. It was formed under the aegis of INTERPOL to combat terrorist financing and money laundering.
2. India has been a member of FATF since its foundation.
3. FATF Secretariat is housed administratively at the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
74. In the context of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements regarding the borrowing powers of the Centre and the states:
1. A state government can borrow directly from within and outside India upon the security of the Consolidated Fund of the State.
2. A state with an outstanding loan towards the Centre cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Doubts and disputes relating to the election of the President or Vice President are decided by
(a) Election Commission
(b) Supreme Court
(c) High Courts
(d) Lok Sabha
76. The rules for the allocation of business of the Government of India are made by
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Union Cabinet
77. Consider the following statements regarding the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha:
1. He/She is nominated by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. He / She performs the duties of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha when the Vice-President acts as President.
3. He / She is responsible to the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
78. How is Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tag different from Quick Response (QR) Code?
1. QR Code requires the scanner to have a direct line of sight whereas RFID tag can be scanned without a direct line of sight.
2. QR Code allows to read and write data to and from codes whereas RFID tag is static and cannot be changed.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
79. With reference to the Parliamentary Committee of Privileges in India, consider the following statements :
1. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have separate committees each on parliamentary privileges.
2. Members of the Committee include both elected and nominated members.
3. The functions of the Parliamentary Committee of Privileges are semi judicial in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
80. It is created for the administration of a town which does not yet fulfill all the conditions necessary for the constitution of a municipality. Though it functions within the framework of the State Municipal Act, only certain provisions of the act apply to it. But unlike the municipality, it is an entirely nominated body, that is, all its members including the chairman are nominated by the state government.
The above description refers to which of the following types of urban local bodies?
(a) Town Area Committee
(b) Cantonment Board
(c) Special Purpose Agency
(d) Notified Area Committee
81. Consider the following statements with reference to lavender:
1. It is native to Europe.
2. In India, its cultivation is restricted to North-Eastern Himalayas.
3. Lavender oil has antiviral and antibacterial properties that help heal scrapes and bites.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
82. Which of the following initiatives form part of the Inter-operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS) Project?
1. Crime and Criminal Tracking and Network Systems
2. e-Prisons
3. e-Forensics
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
83. With reference to the military powers of the President of India, consider the following statements:
1. The President of India has the power to declare war or peace.
2. The President’s power as the Commander-in-Chief of defense forces is independent of legislative control.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
84. Who among the following enjoys legislative powers, in relation to the administration of Union Territories?
1. President
2. Parliament
3. Legislative Assembly in a Union Territory
4. Prime Minister
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
85. The Constitution provides for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in States. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. The legislative assembly of the concerned state must pass a resolution to that effect by a special majority.
2. The Parliament can pass an act to that effect by a simple majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
86. Which one of the following statements is correct about the Speaker ProTem?
(a) He / She fixes the date of the election of the Speaker.
(b) He / She is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members.
(c) The President himself administers an oath to him.
(d) He / She cannot administer floor test.
87. Consider the following statements regarding Kathak Dance :
1. The repertoire of the Kathak dance includes the works of Mirabai and Surdas.
2. The tradition of Kathak dance is unaffected by the outside elements such as Persian dance forms.
3. Wajid Ali Shah, the last King of Awadh was a great patron of Kathak dance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
88. With reference to National Population Register, consider the following statements :
1. It is a register of all usual residents of the country regardless of whether they are citizens or non-citizens of India.
2. It is prepared under the provisions of the Census Act, 1948.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
89. Recently 12th Ministerial Conference of World Trade Organisation was held in Geneva. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. The Ministerial Conference is the WTO’s top decision-making body and usually meets every six months.
2. A decision to admit a new member to WTO is taken by a two-thirds majority in the Ministerial Conference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
90. Which of the following is correct regarding Financial Emergency under Article 360 of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Proclamation declaring financial emergency can be approved only by Lok Sabha.
(b) It can be extended for an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.
(c) Resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency requires only a simple majority.
(d) It was declared for the first time during the Financial Crisis of 1991.
91. With reference to the qualifications for the appointment of Governor, as laid down in the Constitution, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. He should have completed the age of 35 years.
2. He should be qualified for election as a member of the State Legislative Assembly.
3. He must not be of unsound mind or an undischarged insolvent.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
92. Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of the Governor of a state:
1. The 42nd constitutional amendment act, 1976 provided for the appointment of the same person as Governor of two or more states.
2. The office of the Governor is considered not employment under the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
93. The specific provision for the administration of the ‘acquired territories’ is provided under which of the following parts of the Constitution of India?
(a) Part I
(b) Part V
(c) Part VIII
(d) None of the Above
94. With reference to credit ratings, consider the following statements:
1. Credit Rating Agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
2. Sovereign Credit Ratings provide an assessment on the country’s economic and political environment to benchmark itself with other nations.
3. Currently India’s sovereign credit rating is at ‘AAA’ in the S&P’s global ratings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
95. This committee was constituted in Rajya Sabha before its constitution in Lok Sabha. It enforces the code of conduct of members of Parliament. It examines the cases of misconduct and recommends appropriate action. Thus, it is engaged in maintaining discipline and decorum in Parliament.
Which of the following parliamentary committees is being described in the passage given above?
(a) Committee of Privileges
(b) Rules Committee
(c) House Committee
(d) Ethics Committee
96. Which of the following are the likely effects of the proclamation of National Emergency on center-state relations?
1. The legislative power of a state legislature becomes subject to the overriding power of the Parliament.
2. The state government is automatically suspended and the executive power of the Centre extends to the state.
3. The President can issue ordinances on the state subjects mentioned in the seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
97. Consider the following statements regarding parliamentary committees in India:
1. They are appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. They present their reports to the President of India.
3. Consultative committees are a type of parliamentary committee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
98. In the context of cultural history of India, Karakattam is a folk dance of which one of the following states?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Telangana
(d) Andhra Pradesh
99. The Union government has provided for a specific tax regime with respect to virtual digital assets in Budget 2022-23. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. A non-fungible token comes under the definition of a virtual digital Asset in India.
2. Any income from the transfer of any virtual digital asset is exempt from taxation in India.
3. Losses incurred during the transaction of virtual digital assets, can be set off against any other income.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
100. In which of the following conditions the cut motions can not be considered valid?
1. It should not raise a question of privilege.
2. It should not relate to the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. It should relate to one demand only.
4. It can make suggestions for the amendment or repeal of existing laws.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 4 only