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TEST SERIES – 04 SOLVED

ByULF TEAM

Apr 12, 2023
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GS TEST SERIES – 04

1. Consider the following provisions under the  Directive Principles of State Policy as  enshrined in the Indian Constitution:

1. Promoting cottage industries in rural  areas

2. Securing a uniform civil code throughout  the country

3. Avoiding concentration of wealth in a  few hands

4. Securing the participation of workers in  the management of industries

Which of the directive principles given above  are socialistic in nature?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

2. Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits  the employment of children below the age of  14. In this context, which of the following  acts explicitly regulate/prohibit the  employment of children in India?

1. The Beedi and Cigar Workers Act, 1966

2. The Bonded Labour System (Abolition)  Act, 1976

3. Factories Act, 1948

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

3. Which of the following can be passed using a  simple majority in the parliament?

1. Money Bills

2. Declaration of President’s Rule in a state

3. A resolution for the removal of the  Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

4. In the context of the Indian Constitution,  consider the following statements regarding  fundamental duties:

1. These are incorporated in Part IV of the  Constitution by the 42nd Constitution  (Amendment) Act, 1976.

2. The eleventh fundamental duty was  added by the 86th Constitution  (Amendment) Act during the prime  ministership of Manmohan Singh.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

5. The Indian Constitution is founded on the  bedrock of the balance between Fundamental  Rights and Directive principles. To give  absolute primacy to one over another is to  disturb the harmony of the constitution.

In which of the following cases did the  Supreme Court hold this opinion?

(a) Champakam Dorairajan case (1951)

(b) Golaknath case (1967)

(c) Keshavananda Bharti case (1973)

(d) Minerva Mills case (1980)

6. Consider the following statements with  respect to the supreme court of India:

1. Article 130 of the Constitution declares  Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court.

2. Parliament is authorized to appoint other  place or places as seat of the Supreme  Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

7. Which of the following has/have the right to  equality under Article 14 besides the Indian  citizens?

1. Foreigners

2. Statutory corporations

3. Registered Societies

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

8. Consider the following statements regarding  Kuno National Park :

1. River Girna passes through this park.

2. It is located in Madhya Pradesh.

3. It has been chosen for the Cheetah  reintroduction initiative by the  government.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

9. It is a form of government in which the  ultimate leader is a supreme deity (or group  thereof), who rules either directly as a god in  human form or indirectly through earthly  servants (typically the clergy) who rule in the  deity’s stead. The laws are based on religious  laws and precepts, and the government serves  its deity rather than the citizenry. They may  be often oppressive in function, with strict  rules and harsh punishments for rule breakers.

Which of the following types of political  systems is being described in the passage  given above?

(a) Oligarchy

(b) Meritocracy

(c) Theocracy

(d) Aristocracy

10. Consider the following statements:

1. Laws made for alteration of boundaries of  states are considered constitutional  amendments.

2. 99th Constitutional Amendment is  concerned with the settlement of  boundaries with Bangladesh.

3. Indian territory can be ceded to another  country without amending the  constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2, and 3

(d) None

11. With respect to Lok Adalats, consider the  following statements:

1. It has been given statutory status under  the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.

2. The award by the Lok Adalat is not  binding and it is appealable.

3. There is no strict application of  procedural laws like the Civil Procedure  Code and the Evidence Act while  assessing the claim by Lok Adalat.

Which of the statements given above are  correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

12. With reference to Collective Security Treaty  Organization, consider the following  statements:

1. It provides for a regional agreement of the  European Union member states to protect  their territorial integrity and sovereignty.

2. The Collective Security Council (CSC) is  the highest body of the Organization and  consists of heads of the Member States.

3. In the event of an act of aggression  against any of the member states, all other  members can provide it with military  assistance.

Which of the statements given above are  correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

13. With reference to Citizenship (Amendment),  Act 2019, consider the following statements:

1. It provides Indian citizenship to the  illegal migrants who entered India on or  before 31st December 2010.

2. The Act does not apply to tribal areas of  North East states mentioned in the sixth  schedule of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. Which of the following steps can be taken to  secure consumer Internet of Things (IoT)?

1. All IoT device default passwords shall be  unique per device.

2. Principle of least privilege needs to be  avoided.

3. Installation and maintenance of IoT  devices should employ minimal steps.

Select the correct answer using code given  below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

15. In the context of the India State of Forest  Report, 2021, consider the following  statements:

1. In terms of forest cover as a percentage of  total geographical area, Arunachal  Pradesh is ranked highest among the  states.

2. Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve  has the highest forest cover area among  all the tiger reserves.

3. Madhya Pradesh has the maximum  bamboo-bearing area among the states.

4. West Bengal has the maximum mangrove  cover in India.

How many statements given above are  correct?

(a) Only one statement is correct

(b) Only two statements are correct

(c) Only three statements are correct

(d) All four statements are correct

16. In the context of the Indian Constitution,  consider the following statements:

1. The term “minority” is defined in Article  30 of the Indian Constitution.

2. Under Article 28, religious instruction is  permitted in educational institutions  established under any endowment or trust  and administered by the state.

3. Article 29 grants protection only to  linguistic minorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 3 only

17. The geological features named ‘South Wagad  Fault’, ‘Katrol Hill Fault’, ‘Gedi Fault’ recently  appeared in news. They are located in which  of the following regions?

(a) Kachchh region

(b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(c) Eastern Himalayas

(d) Chotanagpur region

18. Which of the following terms were not a part  of the original constitution?

1. Secular

2. Democratic

3. Integrity

4. Fraternity

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

19. Consider the following statements regarding  citizenship in India:

1. Citizenship is listed in the Union List  under the Constitution.

2. The term “citizen” is not defined in the  Constitution.

3. The concept of single citizenship is  adopted from the Canadian Constitution.

Which of the statement given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

20. Consider the following statements  concerning the constituent assembly in India:

1. The Constituent Assembly established  seven committees to draft the  constitution.

2. Congress party officially demanded a  constituent assembly in the 1929 Lahore Session.

3. The British accepted in principle the  demand of a constituent assembly in the  Cabinet Mission Plan.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) None

21. Consider the following pairs:

Provisions under DPSP : Article

1. Living wage for workers : Article 47

2. Promotion of Cooperative societies : Article 43A

3. Equal justice and free legal aid : Article 39A

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

22. Consider the following statements:

1. Sir Creek is a disputed area between India  and Pakistan in the Gulf of Khambat  marshlands.

2. Kori and Vianbari creeks are located in  India.

3. Thalweg principle is used to determine  the waterway boundary between two  countries.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

23. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act,1956, and the States Reorganisation Act,1956 were enacted based on the recommendation of which of the following committees?

(a) Dhar Commission

(b) JVP Committee

(c) Fazl Ali Commission

(d) J.C. Shah Commission

24.Consider the following pairs:

Judgment                                               Decision/Ruling

1. Kesavananda Bharati : The Preamble is a part of the constitution.

2.Golaknath : Fundamental Rights can be amended under Article 368.

3. Shankari Prasad : Constitutional Amendment is not a law under Article 13.

Which of the pairs given above is/ are not correctly matched?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

25. Consider the following pairs:

Country Important reason for  being in news  recently

1. Chile : Drafting a new  constitution with  climate change as a  central theme.

2. Burkina Faso : Dissolution of government and suspension of constitution by the military.

3. Indonesia : Shifting of the capital city due to climate change

4. Iraq : Reparation payment to Kuwait for the 1990 invasion

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 3 and 4 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

26. The objective of the Government of India Act, 1915 was to:

(a) increase the number of non-official members in the Central Legislative Assembly.

(b) lay the foundation of a representative and popular government in India.

(c) consolidate all the preceding acts of Parliament concerning British India.

(d) consolidate all the ordinances passed by the Governor-General of India related to national security.

27. Consider the following pairs:

Constituent Assembly Committee   : Chairman

1. Steering Committee :B. Pattabhi Sitaramaya

2. House Committee : Dr. Rajendra Prasad

3. States Committee : Jawaharlal Nehru

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

28. The framers of the Indian Constitution made the Directive Principles of State Policy legally non–enforceable. Which of the following is/are the reasons for it?

1. India did not have sufficient financial resources.

2. The presence of vast diversity and backwardness in the country.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

29. Consider the following statements with reference to National Supercomputing Mission (NSM):

1. It is implemented by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) in collaboration with IBM.

2. Param Pravega is the largest supercomputer that has been installed in an Indian academic institution.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

30. Consider the following statements with respect to the right to education in the Indian Constitution:

1. The 92nd Constitution Amendment made the Right to Education a fundamental right.

2. Article 21A of the Constitution guarantees the right to receive education in the mother tongue.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

31. Consider the following statements regarding  Article 15 (Right to Equality) of the Indian  Constitution:

1. It prohibits the State from discriminating  against any citizen on the basis of place  of residence.

2. Under this article, the State has been  empowered to make special provisions  for women and children.

3. It allows the State to make any special  provision regarding minority educational  institutions.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

32. Which one of the following group of  languages are included in the Eighth  Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) English, Hindi, Dogri and Sanskrit

(b) Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada and Hindi

(c) Hindi, Kashmiri, Manipuri and English

(d) Tulu, Tamil, Malayalam and Kannada

33. Consider the following statements with  reference to Subordinate Courts in India:

1. They have uniform organizational  structure and jurisdiction throughout  India.

2. Sessions court has power to impose  sentence up to life imprisonment but not  capital punishment.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

34. It established a 15-member council of India to  assist the Secretary of State of India. The  Court of Directors and the Board of Control  of the British East India company were  scrapped. The act made India a direct British  colony.

Which of the following acts is being  described by the above passage?

(a) Government of India Act, 1858

(b) Indian Councils Act, 1861

(c) Indian Councils Act, 1892

(d) Indian Councils Act, 1909

35. Consider the following features:

1. Stable government

2. Prevent autocracy

3. Narrow representation

Which of the above features will be a benefit  after adopting the presidential system in  India?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

36. With reference to Article 16, consider the  following statements:

1. It is confined to appointment to an office  ‘under the state’.

2. Under this Article, the state cannot grant  reservations in the promotion.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

37. Consider the following statements regarding  the constituent assembly:

1. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was elected as  a provisional president of the constituent  assembly.

2. V.T Krishnamachari was the only vice president of the constituent assembly.

3. Muslim League was never a part of the  constituent assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 only

38. In the context of the Indian polity, which of  the following statements best describes the  term fraternity?

(a) It refers to the formation of collective  consciousness leading to unity and  integrity of the nation.

(b) It refers to the voluntary sharing of  collective burdens by individuals for the  welfare of the society.

(c) It refers to an attitude of respect and  reverence towards fellow men.

(d) It refers to the assurance of mutual  tolerance towards all religion.

39. Which of the following types of Justice is  mentioned in the preamble of the Indian  Constitution?

1. Social

2. Political

3. Economic

4. Collective

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

40. Which of the following matters will be  considered under the original jurisdiction of  High courts in India?

1. Election of members of Parliament and  state legislatures

2. Revenue matter

3. Contempt of court

4. Federal disputes

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

41. Consider the following pairs:

Constitutional Amendment         : Subject Matter

1. 26th Amendment : Curtailed the fundamental right to property.

2. 25th Amendment : Abolished the privy purses.

3. 91st Amendment : Limit on size of council of ministers.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

42. Which of the following may be considered as  the functions of a constitution?

1. It provides minimal basic rules that allow  coordination amongst members of a  society.

2. It limits the powers of the government. 3. It expresses the aspirations of its people.

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

43. While the Constituent Assembly debated the  inclusion of the term ‘socialist’, it was omitted  at a later stage from the original text of the  preamble. Which of the following statements  best describes the reasons for its omission?

(a) It was omitted on account of the strong  influence of the American capitalist  system on the constituent assembly.

(b) It was against the principles of  democracy for the constitution to decide  the kind of society people should live in.

(c) It was omitted to encourage the private  sector investment for growth and  development.

(d) It was seen as minority appeasement as it

44. In the context of human rights, which of the  following is the most appropriate description  of the term ‘negative rights’?

(a) Rights that require judicial intervention  in order to be realized.

(b) Set of rights which a certain group, such  as army, is not entitled to exercise.

(c) Rights that require others to abstain from interfering with individual actions.

(d) Rights which put an obligation on others to provide some benefit to the rights holder.

Which of the pairs given above is/are  correctly matched?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

45. Recently, the central government has initiated  the process of comprehensive amendment of  criminal laws. In this context, consider the  following statements:

1. Criminal law and criminal procedure in  India fall under the Concurrent List of the  Constitution.

2. Indian Penal Code, 1860 covers lists  criminal acts and punishments that a  person ought to be charged with.

3. Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 classifies  offences into categories such as bailable,  non-bailable offences, etc.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

46. In the context of biodiversity conservation,  Septemeranthus recently seen in the news is  a/an

(a) Reptile

(b) Plant

(c) Amphibian

(d) Fish

47. Which of the following Directive Principles  (DPSPs) were not added by the 44th  Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978?

1. To minimize inequalities in income,  status, facilities, and opportunities

2. To protect and improve the environment  and safeguard forests and wildlife

3. To secure opportunities for the healthy  development of children

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

48. With reference to the Anti-Microbial  Resistance (AMR) Industry Alliance,  consider the following statements:

1. Anti-Microbial Resistance (AMR)  Industry Alliance was established by the  World Health Organisation.

2. Common Antibiotic Manufacturing  Framework (CAMF) was developed by  AMR Industry Alliance manufacturing  members in order to mitigate the  environmental risks associated with  antibiotic production.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

49. With reference to the Constitution of India,  consider the following statements:

1. Article 18 places explicit restrictions on  the acceptance of both military and  civilian titles.

2. Article 18 has prohibitory provisions for  both citizens and non-citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

50. In the context of welfare of De-Notified,  Nomadic and Semi Nomadic Tribes, consider  the following statements regarding the  Scheme for Economic Empowerment of  DNTs (SEED):

1. National Health Authority and Ministry  of Rural Development are associated  with the implementation of the scheme.

2. The scheme envisages a Minimum  Support Price type of support for minor  forest produce collected by tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

51. With reference to Solar Flares, consider the  following statements:

1. These are a sudden explosions of energy  caused by reorganizing of magnetic field  lines near sunspots.

2. In a solar flare, energy stored in the sun’s  magnetic structures is converted into  light and heat energy.

3. Geomagnetic storms can be triggered by  solar flares.

Which of the statements given above are  correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

52. Which of the following statements are correct  with reference to the protection of life and  personal liberty provided under Article 21 of  the constitution?

1. Article 21 explicitly provides for the  protection against arbitrary executive  action but not against arbitrary legislative  actions.

2. Violations of the right of private  individuals are not covered by Article 21.

3. This right cannot be suspended during an  emergency.

4. It includes the right to move out of the  country and the right to return to India.

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

53. The Fundamental Duties, incorporated in the  Indian Constitution under Article 51A, were  inspired from which of the following  constitutions?

(a) Irish Constitution

(b) Spanish Constitution

(c) USSR Constitution

(d) Australian Constitution

54. Which of the following statements is/are  correct regarding Fundamental Rights?

1. They are defended and guaranteed by the  Supreme Court.

2. The state can impose restrictions on  fundamental rights only during National  Emergency.

3. They can be curtailed by parliament both  through the ordinary acts and  constitutional amendment acts.

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

55. Consider the following statements regarding  the IUCN initiative – Green List of Protected  and Conserved Areas:

1. The initiative aims to provide a global  benchmark to assess whether protected  areas are achieving successful  conservation outcomes through effective  governance.

2. Selected sites are eligible for monetary  assistance under Global Environment  Facility.

3. Currently, India has no sites that are in the  list.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

56. Which of the following qualifications/ conditions is/are common for both supreme  court and high court judges?

1. Should be a distinguished jurist in the  opinion of the president.

2. No minimum age for appointment.

3. Advocate of a high court or high courts in  succession for ten years.

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

57. Which of the following articles of the Indian  Constitution relate to the opportunities for  education for children between the age of six  and fourteen years?

(a) Articles 51A and 37

(b) Articles 21A and 37

(c) Articles 51A and 21A

(d) Articles 45 and 48

58. In the context of forest conservation, which of  the following organizations has proposed a  new “Fire Ready Formula” to tackle future  wildfires?

(a) United Nations Environment Programme

(b) World Wide Fund for Nature

(c) International Tropical Timber  Organization

(d) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate  Change

59. With reference to Poliomyelitis (polio),  consider the following statements:

1. It is a viral disease that largely affects  children under 5 years of age.

2. All its three types of strains have been  eradicated from Asia and Africa.

3. It may affect the spinal cord causing  muscle weakness and paralysis.

Which of the statements given above are  correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

60. With reference to Small Satellite Launch  Vehicle (SSLV), consider the following  statements:

1. Antrix Corporation Limited is  responsible for the manufacturing of  SSLV through Indian Industry partners.

2. It is capable to launch upto 500 kg  satellite into Geostationary orbit.

3. It is four-staged launch vehicle with the  first and third stages using solid rocket  motors; and the second and fourth stages  using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

61. Which of the following countries are  members of the Colombo Security Conclave  (CSC)?

1. India

2. Sri Lanka

3. Maldives

4. China

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

62. Consider the following statements with  respect to Special Leave Petition (SLP):

1. Supreme Court may grant special leave to  appeal from any judgment passed by any  court in Indian territory except on laws of  armed forces.

2. It can be filed against any order of the  High Court refusing to grant the  certificate of fitness for appeal to the  Supreme Court at any time.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

63. Consider the following pairs:

Places in news                 Location

1. Darvaza Gas Crater : Kazakhstan

2. Sanaa : Yemen

3. Chernobyl : Russia

4. Renkoji Temple : Bhutan

How many pairs given above is/are correctly  matched?

(a) 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

64. In the context of religion and religious affairs,  which of the following has been mentioned in  the Constitution?

1. Carrying of kirpans is to be included in  the profession of the Sikh religion.

2. The term ‘Hindus’ would include ‘Sikhs’  and ‘Buddhists’.

3. The State has to make efforts to ban the  slaughtering of cows.

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

65. Consider the following statements with  respect to contempt of court:

1. Contempt of courts has both legislative  and constitutional backing.

2. The consent of Chief justice is mandatory  when one individual wants to initiate a  case of contempt of court against another  individual.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. With reference to the role of online election  campaigning in India, consider the following  statements:

1. Candidates contesting elections need to  submit authentic social media account  details at the time of nomination.

2. Online campaigning does not include  reaching out to voters with phone calls,  videos.

3. Rules of pre-certification of political  advertisements are applicable on social  media platforms.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

67. Consider the following statements regarding  the Indian federation:

1. The constitution of India empowers the  Parliament to alter the territory of states  without their consent.

2. Indian federation is an indestructible  union of indestructible states.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

68. With reference to the Swaran Singh  committee, consider the following  statements:

1. The committee was established by the  first non-congress government soon after  the National Emergency.

2. It proposed to incorporate the ten  fundamental duties in the Indian  Constitution.

3. It recommended the imposition of  penalty or punishment for infringement  of duties.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 only

69. Which of the following statements is/are  correct with reference to the Preamble to the  Indian constitution?

1. It acted as a guide to the Constituent  Assembly in drafting the Constitution of  India.

2. It reveals the source from which the  Constitution derives its authority.

3. It has been amended only once since its  adoption.

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

70. Consider the following statements regarding  the Government of India Act, 1935:

1. It envisaged the establishment of an All India federation excluding princely  states.

2. It provided for dyarchy at the Centre. Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

71. Hoysala temples are found in which of the  following places?

1. Belur

2. Halebid

3. Samarlakota

4. Somanathapura

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

72. Which of the following benefits are enjoyed  by an overseas citizen of India (OCI) card  holder?

1. Exemption from reporting to police  authorities for any length of stay in India.

2. They can hold constitutional posts.

3. Multiple entries and multi-purpose  lifelong visa to visit India.

4. No entry fees for visiting the national  monuments and historical sites.

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

73. Consider the following pairs:

Writ                                   Ground

1. Quo-Warranto : Excess jurisdiction

2. Certiorari : Illegal usurpation  of public office

3. Habeas Corpus : Arbitrary  detention

4. Mandamus : Non-performance  of public duties

How many of the given pairs are correctly  matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All the pairs

74. With reference to Foreigners Tribunals (FT),  consider the following statements:

1. These tribunals primarily deal with the  grievances of foreigners who face safety  and security issues during their legal stay  in India.

2. They are set up under the Foreigner’s  Act, 1946.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

75. Consider the following statements regarding  Article 13 of the Indian Constitution:

1. It creates scope for reviewing both pre constitutional and existing laws.

2. Currently, the amendments made under  Article 368 are not laws within the  meaning of Article 13 and hence cannot  be challenged.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

76. Which of the following article(s) of the Indian  Constitution has been called ‘the very soul of  the Constitution and the very heart of it’ by  Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

(a) Article 32 only

(b) Article 32 and Article 13

(c) Article 226

(d) Article 13 and Article 14

77. Consider the following statements with  respect to writ jurisdiction:

1. Writ jurisdiction of the high court is  wider than that of the Supreme Court.

2. In the high courts, writs can be issued  only against the violation of fundamental  rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

78. Consider the following statements regarding  the Constitution of India:

1. The Indian Constitution’s calligrapher  was Prem Behari Narain Raizada.

2. Vasant Krishan Vaidya calligraphed the  Hindi translation of the original  constitution

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

79. Which among the following are reasons for  adopting the parliamentary system in India?

1. Preference to responsibility over stability

2. Harmony between the legislature and  executive

3. Ensuring continuity in policies.

4. The government is primarily run by  experts.

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

80. Consider the following statements regarding  direct democracy:

1. It is a form of government where all  citizens participate through their  representatives.

2. Zila Parishad in India can be considered  as an example of direct democracy.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

81. On a particular day, 300 members are present  in Lok Sabha at the time of voting. In this  scenario, an amendment bill, under Article  368 of the constitution

(a) can be passed with the support of only  150 members.

(b) cannot be passed without support of at  least 273 members.

(c) can be passed with a support from  minimum 200 members.

(d) cannot be passed with the given strength  of members present for voting.

82. Consider the following pairs :

Festival Associated    : State

1. Rann Utsav : Odisha

2. Gangasagar Mela : West Bengal

3. Spituk Gustor : Manipur

How many pairs given above is/are correctly  matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) None of the pairs

83. With reference to Domestic Systemically  Important Banks (D-SIBs), consider the  following statements:

1. Banks whose assets exceed 2% of  national GDP are considered part of this  group.

2. Banks Board Bureau has the authority to  decide the names of banks designated as  D-SIB.

3. At present only the State Bank of India  (SBI) has been designated as a D-SIB.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

84. The Directive Principles of State Policy  explicitly provides for the separation of  powers of which two branches of the  government?

1. Executive and judiciary

2. Executive and legislative

3. Legislative and judiciary

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

85. Consider the following statements:

1. Since 1900, India has won less than 50  medals in Summer Olympics.

2. India has not won a single medal in  Winter Olympics so far.

3. India has won only two gold medals in  the individual category in Summer  Olympics.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

86. Recently, a notification was issued to make  Orang National Park more than thrice its  existing size. In this context, consider the  following statements with respect to ‘Orang  National Park’:

1. It is located on the southern bank of the  Brahmaputra river.

2. Pygmy hog, a critically endangered  mammal inhabits the Orang National  Park.

3. Orang National Park is identified as an  Important Bird Area (IBA) by Birdlife  International.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

87. Berlin declaration on Digital Society and  Value Based Digital Government, recently  seen in news, is related to the affairs of

(a) G20

(b) European Union

(c) G7

(d) Organisation for Economic Co-operation  and Development (OECD)

88. Consider the following statements regarding  the Constituent Assembly of India:

1. Mahatma Gandhi was not a member of  the constituent assembly.

2. Separate electorate practice was not  followed in its election.

3. It functioned as the first parliament of the  country.

Which of the statements given above  is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None

89. With reference to the Directive Principles of  State Policy (DPSP), consider the following  statements:

1. They aim at establishing political  democracy in the country.

2. They are not automatically enforced and  require legislation for their  implementation.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

90. The Constitution of India provides for which  of the following ways to acquire citizenship?

1. By birth

2. By descent

3. By registration

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) None

91. With reference to the review petition and  curative petition in India, consider the  following statements:

1. Under Article 137 of the Constitution of  India, the Supreme Court has the power  to review its judgment pronounced by it.

2. There is a time limit of 30 days for filing  a curative and review petition.

3. Concept of curative petition evolved in  the landmark case of Rupa Ashok Hurra  vs. Ashok Hurra and Anr (2002).

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

92. Consider the following statements regarding  the Charter Act of 1833:

1. It made the Governor-General of Bengal  the Viceroy of India.

2. It made the East India Company a purely  administrative body.

3. It separated the legislative and executive  functions of the Governor-General’s  council for the first time.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

93. In the context of the Indian constitution,  consider the following statements regarding  the term ‘liberty’:

1. The idea of liberty has been borrowed  from the American constitution.

2. Liberty incorporated in the preamble is  negative in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

94. Consider the following statements regarding  the amendment procedure of the constitution  of India:

1. A constitutional amendment bill must be  introduced only in the Lok Sabha.

2. The original constitution provided for  mandatory assent by the president to a  constitutional amendment bill.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

95. The term Republic used in the preamble of  the constitution of India stands for:

1. Elected president as the head of the State. 2. Government has unlimited power.

3. Political sovereignty is vested in the  people.

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

96. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Elephant was adopted as the symbol/seal  of the Constituent Assembly.

(b) H.V.R. Iyengar was appointed as the  constitutional advisor to the Constituent  Assembly.

(c) S.N. Mukerjee was the chief draftsman of  the constitution in the Constituent  Assembly.

(d) The original version of the constitution  drafted by the constituent assembly was  decorated by artists from Shantiniketan.

97. Consider the following statements with  respect to the collegium system:

1. It is mentioned in the Indian Constitution  as the method of selection of Judges of  the Supreme Court.

2. High Court judges are recommended by a  collegium comprising the CJI and two  senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither1 nor 2

98. Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to the strength of the  judges in the supreme court?

(a) Strength of Supreme Court judges can be  increased by way of parliamentary  legislation.

(b) There have been no fixed criteria for  fixing the strength of judges of the  Supreme Court.

(c) Amendment of Article 124 of the Indian  Constitution is required to increase the  strength of the Supreme Court.

(d) The original constitution provided for  Chief Justice of India along with a  maximum of seven other judges.

99. Arrange the following states in their  chronological order of formation, from the  earliest to the latest.

1. Uttar Pradesh

2. Andhra Pradesh

3. Haryana

4. Nagaland

Select the correct answer using the code given  below.

(a) 1-2-3-4

(b) 1-2-4-3

(c) 2-1-4-3

(d) 2-1-3-4

100. Consider the following statements  with respect to the procedure laid down  under the Judges Enquiry Act (1968) for the  removal of supreme court judges:

1. Presiding officers of respective houses  may admit the motion of removal or  refuse to admit it.

2. The President constitutes a three-member  committee to investigate the complaint  against a judge.

3. Motion for removal is required to be  adopted by each House of Parliament by  an absolute majority.

Which of the statements given above is/are  correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

ANSWER KEY

1)      B

2)      D

3)      C

4)      D

5)      D

6)      A

7)      D

8)      C

9)      C

10)   D

11)   A

12)   B

13)   B

14)   C

15)   C

16)   C

17)   A

18)   C

19)   A

20)   D

21)   B

22)   B

23)   C

24)   A

25)   D

26)   C

27)   A

28)   C

29)   B

30)   D

31)   A

32)   B

33)   D

34)   A

35)   C

36)   A

37)   D

38)   C

39)   C

40)   B

41)   A

42)   D

43)   B

44)   C

45)   D

46)   B

47)   B

48)   B

49)   B

50)   A

51)   D

52)   D

53)   C

54)   D

55)   C

56)   D

57)   C

58)   A

59)   C

60)   D

61)   B

62)   C

63)   A

64)   C

65)   A

66)   C

67)   A

68)   C

69)   B

70)   A

71)   B

72)   C

73)   B

74)   B

75)   A

76)   A

77)   A

78)   C

79)   C

80)   D

81)   B

82)   A

83)   A

84)   B

85)   D

86)   C

87)   B

88)   A

89)   B

90)   D

91)   D

92)   C

93)   D

94)   D

95)   B

96)   B

97)   B

98)   C

99)   B

100) D

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